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- Anemias 0%
- Asthma 0%
- Benign prostatic hyperplasia 0%
- Bipolar disorder 0%
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 0%
- Deep vein thrombosis 0%
- Diabetes Mellitus 0%
- Glaucoma 0%
- Heart Failure 0%
- HIV 0%
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- Hyperuricemia and Gout 0%
- Infectious Diseases 0%
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 points4) which of the following are the symptoms of heart failure
I Dyspnea
II Exertional fatigue and weakness
III urinary incontinanceCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 points5 )which of the following drugs are used in heart failure
I ACEIs or ARBs
II diuretics
III beta -adrenergic blockersCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 points6) which of the following are the contraindication to ACEI
I severe renal artery stenosis
II pregnancy.
III diabetesCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 points4 which of the following antibiotics are used in CAP
I Amoxicillin
II tetracycline
III clindamycinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 points5 which of the antibiotics are used if meticillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) is suspected
I amoxicillin
II vancomycin
III minocyclineCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 points6 Initial empirical treatment of adults with Non-severe CAP includes
I oral amoxicillin plus erythromycin or clarithromycin;
II oral moxifloxacin or levofloxacin.
III oral vancomycinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 points4 in patients with which of the following conditions treatment is started when CD4 count falls below 500.
I hepatitis C
II hepatitis B
III cancerCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 points5 The risk of a person living with HIV, who is taking effective antiretroviral therapy (ART), passing HIV on to sexual partners through vaginal intercourse is very low, under the following conditions
I no other sexually transmitted infections in either partner.
II viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for more than six months
III viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for a weekCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 points6 people should do an HIV test if they have had
I have been diagnosed with tuberculosis, hepatitis,
II unprotected sex
III injected drugsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 points7 the most advanced stage of HIV is
I AIDS
II tuberculosis
III cancerCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 points4 higher proportion of which of the following within the prostate may cause BPH
I estrogen
II DHT
III testosteroneCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 points5 Men with the following factors are more likely to develop benign prostatic hyperplasia:
I age 40 years and older
II erectile dysfunction
III family historyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 points6 The complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia may include
I acute urinary retention
II urinary tract infections (UTIs)
III kidney damageCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 points7 which of following are the medical test for BPH
I prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
II complete blood count
III ESRCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 points4 Stress incontinence is usually the result of the weakening or damaging of which of the. following muscles
I pelvic floor muscles
II urethral sphincter
III external sphincterCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 points5 which of the following increase the chances of urinary incontinence
I pregnancy and vaginal birth
II obesity
III increasing ageCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 points6 which of the following are some of the measures to improve UI
I losing weight
II pelvic floor exercise
III bladder trainingCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 points7 activities that may cause urine to
leak in Stress incontinence include
I coughing
II sneezing
III heavy liftingCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 points4 what are the type of tremor associated with parkinsons disease
I resting tremor
II pill-rolling tremor
III action tremorCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 points5 which of the following term describes the difficulty in initiating movements
I Akinesia
II bradykinesia.
III TremorCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 points6 which of the following is the direct acting dopamine agonist
I carbidopa
II bromocriptine
III levodopaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 points7 which of the following are the Indirect-acting dopamine agonists
I amantadine
II selegiline
III bromocriptineCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 points4 what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
I Affective fl attening, Alogia
II Anhedonia, Amotivation
III Apathy, Asocial behaviorCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 points5 what are the Disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia
I Disorganized speech, Disorganized behavior
II Thought disorder
III Poor attentionCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 points6 which of the following has less risk for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
I typical antipsychotics
II atypical antipsychotics
III benzodiazepinesCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 points7 antipsychotic effect of typical antipsychotics medications is primarily mediated through which kind of mechanism
I the blockade of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
II the activation of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
III the blockade of serotonin receptorsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 points4.which of the following drugs are contraindicated with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Nonsteroidal anti-infl ammatory drugs
III sodium valproateCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 points5 which of the following drugs cause CNS toxicity if used along with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Benzodiazepines
III AntipsychoticsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 points6 what is the toxic level of lithium in the blood
I >1.5 mEq/L
II >2 mEq/L
III >0.8 mEq/LCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 points7 acute renal failure is an absolute contraindication of which of the following drugs
I lithium
II Benzodiazepines
III AntipsychoticsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 points4which of the following drugs are used in exercise induced breathlessness
I albuterol
II levalbuterol
III formoterolCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 points5which of the following are long acting beta 2 agonist
I salmeterol
II formoterol
III arformoterolCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 points6which of the following are the mechanism of action of beta 2 agonist
I activating adenyl cyclase
II Increased intracellular Camp
III activation of ATPCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 points7what are the side effects of beta agonist
I tremor
II tachycardia
III hypokalemia at high doseCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 points4 which of the following reduce sputum volume without altering viscosity
I guafenasin
II ipratropium bromide
III tiotropium bromideCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 points5 Which of the following is correct about beta agonist in COPD
I no effect in airway obstruction
II relieve dyspnea
III increase mucociliary clearanceCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 points6 Which of the following is correct about Roflumilast
I Roflumilast is a long-acting selective PDE4 inhibitor
II has got anti-infl ammatory effects and mild bronchodilator eff ects
III used in COPD exacerbationsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 points7 what are the adverse effects of Roflumilast
I Weight loss,
II GI intolerance
III suicidalityCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 points5 which of the following is/are Generalized seizures
I Absence seizures, Myoclonic seizures
II Clonic seizures, Tonic seizures
III Tonic–clonic seizures (grand mal), Atonic seizuresCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 points6 which of the following seizure characterized by unilateral involvement
I complex Partial seizures
II simple Partial seizures
III Absence seizuresCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 points7 Motor signs of Simple partial seizures include
I convulsive jerking
II chewing motions
III lip smackingCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 points8 paresthesias and auras are which type of manifestation of Simple partial seizures
I Motor signs
II Sensory and somatosensory manifestations
III Behavioral manifestationsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 points4 Heparin products used in the treatment of DVT include the following
I enoxaparin
II UFH
III FondaparinuxCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 points5 Factor Xa inhibitors used in the treatment of DVT include the following:
I enoxaparin
II Fondaparinux
III RivaroxabanCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 points6 which of the following are true about the Anticoagulant therapy for DVT
I it does not remove the thrombus
II it is noninvasive
III low risk of complicationsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 points4 which of the following are fibrates
I gemfibrozil
II fenofibrate
III bezafibrateCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 points5 which of the following is the drug of choice for hypertriglyceridemia patients with chronic kidney disease
I fenofibrate
II gemfibrozil
III statinCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 points6what is the adverse effect of niacin
I fever
II chemical hepatitis.
III pancreatitisCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 points4 In Ischemic strokes Emboli can arise from
I intra- or extracranial arteries
II the heart.
III the lungCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 points5 Hemorrhagic strokes include
I subarachnoid hemorrhage
II intracerebral hemorrhage
III subdural hematomasCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 points6 what are the symptoms of stroke
I weakness on one side of the body
II inability to speak, loss of vision
III vertigo, or fallingCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 points4 what are the causes of Increased use of iron
I pregnancy
II peptic ulcer
III neuropathyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 points5 what are the symptoms of iron deficency anemia
I tiredness, weakness
II glossitis
III insomniaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 points6 Prophylaxis with an iron preparation may be appropriate in which of the following conditions
I malabsorption
II menorrhagia
III pregnancyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III AmoxicillinCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 points5 which of the following drugs used in gingivitis
I Metronidazole
II amoxicillin
III doxycyclineCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 points6 Bacterial vaginosis is treated with the following drugs
I Oral metronidazole
II topical metronidazole
III topical clindamycinCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 points4 woman past menopause who is having repeated UTIs can be treated with
I vaginal estrogen
II cephalosporins
III amoxicillinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 points5 Things that increase a woman’s risk of getting UTIs include:
I pregnancy
II Sexual activity,
III Lack of estrogen,Correct
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 points6 Things that increase a man’s risk of UTIs include:
I benign prostatic hyperplasia
II uncircumcised penis.
III Unprotected sexCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 points4 most common osteoporosis-related fractures involves which of the following bones
I proximal femur
II vertebrae
III wristCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 points5 which of the following is true about the T score
I Normal bone mass is a T-score greater than –1
II osteopenia is a Tscore of –1 to –2.4,
III osteoporosis is a T-score at or below –2.5.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 points6 what are the non pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis
I limiting caffeine consumption
II Smoking cessation
III Weight-bearing aerobic and strengthening exercisesCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 points7 which of the following are used in osteoporosis
I vitamin D
II Calcium
III BisphosphonatesCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 points4 which of the following is true about NSAIDs
I NSAIDs are nonselective inhibitors of COX-1
II requires several days of therapy to achieve anti-infl ammatory eff ect.
III Analgesia is seen with short treatment durationCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 points5 which of the following is correct about the use of tramadol in OA
I used when pain is unrelieved by NSAIDs
II used when the patient cannot take NSAIDs
III used when the patient experiences breakthrough painCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 points6 which of the following is correct about anti-inflammatory action of NSAIDS
I seen with short treatment duration
II response is seen with higher doses
III usually requires several days of therapyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 points7 which of the following is selective COX 2 inhibitor
I Ibuprofen
II Celecoxib
III NaproxenCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 points4 which of the following are Nonbiological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (NBDMARDs)
I leflunomide, methotrexate
II sulfasalazine, minocycline.
III hydroxychloroquine,Correct
Incorrect
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Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 points5 which of the following are biological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (BDMARDs)
I Etanercept
II Infliximab
III Adalimumab,MethotrexateCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 points6 which of the following drugs causes infection as a side effect
I anakinra
II Abatacept
III AzathioprineCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 points7 stomatitis is the adverse reaction of which of the following drugs
I Gold Salts
II Azathioprine
III CyclosporineCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs cause hyperuricemia;
I Diuretics
II Cyclosporine
III spironolactoneCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 points5 which of the following is correct about acute gout treatment
I Urate-lowering drugs therapy should begin immediately
II Anti-infl ammatory drug therapy should begin immediately
III Urate-lowering drugs should not be given until the acute attack is controlledCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 points6 which of the following is correct about the use of NSAIDS in acute gout
I Begin with high doses for 2 to 3 days, then taper the dose rapidly over the next several days
II Begin with low doses for 2 to 3 days, then increase the dose rapidly over the next several days
III begin with low dose and maintain the low doseCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 points7 NSAIDs, require cautious use in patients with the following conditions
I hypertension
II congestive heart failure (CHF)
III peptic ulcer disease and mild to moderate renal failureCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 points4 which of the following are the risk factors for peptic ulcer disease
I Smoking.
IINSAIDs.
III Alcohol.Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 points5 what are the characteristics of pain associated with the peptic ulcer disease
I Food usually relieves duodenal ulcer pain
II Food may cause gastric ulcer pain
III Food may cause gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer painCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 points6 which of the following is true about the antacids
I neutralize gastric acid
II used to treat ulcer pain
III available as magnesium, aluminum, or calciumCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 points7 what are the OTC recommendation for symptoms of PUD
I antacid
II H2RA
III H2RA/antacid combinationCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 points4 main symptoms of IBD includes
I recurring or bloody diarrhoea
II weight loss
III constipationCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 points5 which of the following are used in treating IBD
I aminosalicylates
II immunosuppressants
III corticosteroidsCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 points6 which of the following are riskfactors of IBD
I Isotretinoin
II NSAIDS
III vitamin B12Correct
Incorrect
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 points7which of the following are Aminosalicylates
I Sulfasalazine
II mesalamine
III olsalazineCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 points4 which of the following is correct about Gestational diabetes mellitus
I elevated plasma glucose during pregnancy
II elevated plasma glucose during and after pregnancy
III elevated plasma glucose before pregnancyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 points5 which of the following can cause diabetes mellitus
I glucocorticoids
II antipsychotics
III statinsCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 points6 normal glucose regulation involves which of the following
I insulin
II incretin hormones
III amylin.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 points7 which of the following are the fuctions of insulin
I Promotes the cellular uptake of plasma glucose
II Inhibits production of glucose from liver, muscle glycogen, or amino acids
III Stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen and fatCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 points4 which of the following is the action of calcitonin,
I reduces the blood calcium ion concentration.
II increases the blood calcium ion concentration.
III increases the blood sodium ion concentration.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 points5 What are the causes of hypothyroidism
I Hashimoto thyroiditis
II Goiter
III Treatment of hyperthyroidismCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 points6 what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism
I dry, flaky, inelastic skin
II coarse hair
III slowed speech and thoughtCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 points7 what are the drugs used to treat hypothyroidism
I Levothyroxine
II Liothyronine
III beta blockerCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 points4 Prostaglandins acts in glaucoma by
I decrease the inflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor
II increase the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)
III decrease the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)Correct
Incorrect
-
Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 points5 beta blocker used in glaucoma includes
I timolol
II betaxolol
III atenololCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 points6 which of the following ways beta blocker acts in glaucoma
I induce the production of fluid in your eye
II reduce the production of fluid in your eye
III reduce pressure in eye (intraocular pressure)Correct
Incorrect
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 points7 which of the following ways Alpha-adrenergic agonists acts in glaucoma
I reduce the production of aqueous humor
II increase outflow of the fluid in eye
III increase the production of aqueous humorCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 points4 Common chronic pain complaints include
I Headache
II Low back pain
III Cancer painCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 points5 which of the following are used to treat back pain
I paracetamol
II codeine
III diazepamCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 points6 what are the problems associated with the use of ketoprofen during pregnancy
I this medicine may decrease female fertility
II medicine may lengthen or delay labour
III baby may have some problems after birthCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 points7 which of the following medicine may interact with ketoprofen
I anticoagulants
II antiplatelets
III corticosteroidsCorrect
Incorrect