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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 points4) which of the following are the symptoms of heart failure
I Dyspnea
II Exertional fatigue and weakness
III urinary incontinanceCorrectIncorrect - Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 points5 )which of the following drugs are used in heart failure
I ACEIs or ARBs
II diuretics
III beta -adrenergic blockersCorrectIncorrect - Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 points6) which of the following are the contraindication to ACEI
I severe renal artery stenosis
II pregnancy.
III diabetesCorrectIncorrect - Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 points4 which of the following antibiotics are used in CAP
I Amoxicillin
II tetracycline
III clindamycinCorrectIncorrect - Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 points5 which of the antibiotics are used if meticillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) is suspected
I amoxicillin
II vancomycin
III minocyclineCorrectIncorrect - Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 points6 Initial empirical treatment of adults with Non-severe CAP includes
I oral amoxicillin plus erythromycin or clarithromycin;
II oral moxifloxacin or levofloxacin.
III oral vancomycinCorrectIncorrect - Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 points4 in patients with which of the following conditions treatment is started when CD4 count falls below 500.
I hepatitis C
II hepatitis B
III cancerCorrectIncorrect - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 points5 The risk of a person living with HIV, who is taking effective antiretroviral therapy (ART), passing HIV on to sexual partners through vaginal intercourse is very low, under the following conditions
I no other sexually transmitted infections in either partner.
II viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for more than six months
III viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for a weekCorrectIncorrect - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 points6 people should do an HIV test if they have had
I have been diagnosed with tuberculosis, hepatitis,
II unprotected sex
III injected drugsCorrectIncorrect - Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 points7 the most advanced stage of HIV is
I AIDS
II tuberculosis
III cancerCorrectIncorrect - Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 points4 higher proportion of which of the following within the prostate may cause BPH
I estrogen
II DHT
III testosteroneCorrectIncorrect - Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 points5 Men with the following factors are more likely to develop benign prostatic hyperplasia:
I age 40 years and older
II erectile dysfunction
III family historyCorrectIncorrect - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 points6 The complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia may include
I acute urinary retention
II urinary tract infections (UTIs)
III kidney damageCorrectIncorrect - Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 points7 which of following are the medical test for BPH
I prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
II complete blood count
III ESRCorrectIncorrect - Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 points4 Stress incontinence is usually the result of the weakening or damaging of which of the. following muscles
I pelvic floor muscles
II urethral sphincter
III external sphincterCorrectIncorrect - Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 points5 which of the following increase the chances of urinary incontinence
I pregnancy and vaginal birth
II obesity
III increasing ageCorrectIncorrect - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 points6 which of the following are some of the measures to improve UI
I losing weight
II pelvic floor exercise
III bladder trainingCorrectIncorrect - Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 points7 activities that may cause urine to
leak in Stress incontinence include
I coughing
II sneezing
III heavy liftingCorrectIncorrect - Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 points4 what are the type of tremor associated with parkinsons disease
I resting tremor
II pill-rolling tremor
III action tremorCorrectIncorrect - Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 points5 which of the following term describes the difficulty in initiating movements
I Akinesia
II bradykinesia.
III TremorCorrectIncorrect - Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 points6 which of the following is the direct acting dopamine agonist
I carbidopa
II bromocriptine
III levodopaCorrectIncorrect - Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 points7 which of the following are the Indirect-acting dopamine agonists
I amantadine
II selegiline
III bromocriptineCorrectIncorrect - Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 points4 what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
I Affective fl attening, Alogia
II Anhedonia, Amotivation
III Apathy, Asocial behaviorCorrectIncorrect - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 points5 what are the Disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia
I Disorganized speech, Disorganized behavior
II Thought disorder
III Poor attentionCorrectIncorrect - Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 points6 which of the following has less risk for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
I typical antipsychotics
II atypical antipsychotics
III benzodiazepinesCorrectIncorrect - Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 points7 antipsychotic effect of typical antipsychotics medications is primarily mediated through which kind of mechanism
I the blockade of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
II the activation of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
III the blockade of serotonin receptorsCorrectIncorrect - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 points4.which of the following drugs are contraindicated with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Nonsteroidal anti-infl ammatory drugs
III sodium valproateCorrectIncorrect - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 points5 which of the following drugs cause CNS toxicity if used along with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Benzodiazepines
III AntipsychoticsCorrectIncorrect - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 points6 what is the toxic level of lithium in the blood
I >1.5 mEq/L
II >2 mEq/L
III >0.8 mEq/LCorrectIncorrect - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 points7 acute renal failure is an absolute contraindication of which of the following drugs
I lithium
II Benzodiazepines
III AntipsychoticsCorrectIncorrect - Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 points4which of the following drugs are used in exercise induced breathlessness
I albuterol
II levalbuterol
III formoterolCorrectIncorrect - Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 points5which of the following are long acting beta 2 agonist
I salmeterol
II formoterol
III arformoterolCorrectIncorrect - Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 points6which of the following are the mechanism of action of beta 2 agonist
I activating adenyl cyclase
II Increased intracellular Camp
III activation of ATPCorrectIncorrect - Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 points7what are the side effects of beta agonist
I tremor
II tachycardia
III hypokalemia at high doseCorrectIncorrect - Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 points4 which of the following reduce sputum volume without altering viscosity
I guafenasin
II ipratropium bromide
III tiotropium bromideCorrectIncorrect - Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 points5 Which of the following is correct about beta agonist in COPD
I no effect in airway obstruction
II relieve dyspnea
III increase mucociliary clearanceCorrectIncorrect - Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 points6 Which of the following is correct about Roflumilast
I Roflumilast is a long-acting selective PDE4 inhibitor
II has got anti-infl ammatory effects and mild bronchodilator eff ects
III used in COPD exacerbationsCorrectIncorrect - Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 points7 what are the adverse effects of Roflumilast
I Weight loss,
II GI intolerance
III suicidalityCorrectIncorrect - Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 points5 which of the following is/are Generalized seizures
I Absence seizures, Myoclonic seizures
II Clonic seizures, Tonic seizures
III Tonic–clonic seizures (grand mal), Atonic seizuresCorrectIncorrect - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 points6 which of the following seizure characterized by unilateral involvement
I complex Partial seizures
II simple Partial seizures
III Absence seizuresCorrectIncorrect - Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 points7 Motor signs of Simple partial seizures include
I convulsive jerking
II chewing motions
III lip smackingCorrectIncorrect - Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 points8 paresthesias and auras are which type of manifestation of Simple partial seizures
I Motor signs
II Sensory and somatosensory manifestations
III Behavioral manifestationsCorrectIncorrect - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 points4 Heparin products used in the treatment of DVT include the following
I enoxaparin
II UFH
III FondaparinuxCorrectIncorrect - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 points5 Factor Xa inhibitors used in the treatment of DVT include the following:
I enoxaparin
II Fondaparinux
III RivaroxabanCorrectIncorrect - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 points6 which of the following are true about the Anticoagulant therapy for DVT
I it does not remove the thrombus
II it is noninvasive
III low risk of complicationsCorrectIncorrect - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 points4 which of the following are fibrates
I gemfibrozil
II fenofibrate
III bezafibrateCorrectIncorrect - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 points5 which of the following is the drug of choice for hypertriglyceridemia patients with chronic kidney disease
I fenofibrate
II gemfibrozil
III statinCorrectIncorrect - Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 points6what is the adverse effect of niacin
I fever
II chemical hepatitis.
III pancreatitisCorrectIncorrect - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 points4 In Ischemic strokes Emboli can arise from
I intra- or extracranial arteries
II the heart.
III the lungCorrectIncorrect - Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 points5 Hemorrhagic strokes include
I subarachnoid hemorrhage
II intracerebral hemorrhage
III subdural hematomasCorrectIncorrect - Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 points6 what are the symptoms of stroke
I weakness on one side of the body
II inability to speak, loss of vision
III vertigo, or fallingCorrectIncorrect - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 points4 what are the causes of Increased use of iron
I pregnancy
II peptic ulcer
III neuropathyCorrectIncorrect - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 points5 what are the symptoms of iron deficency anemia
I tiredness, weakness
II glossitis
III insomniaCorrectIncorrect - Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 points6 Prophylaxis with an iron preparation may be appropriate in which of the following conditions
I malabsorption
II menorrhagia
III pregnancyCorrectIncorrect - Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III AmoxicillinCorrectIncorrect - Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 points5 which of the following drugs used in gingivitis
I Metronidazole
II amoxicillin
III doxycyclineCorrectIncorrect - Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 points6 Bacterial vaginosis is treated with the following drugs
I Oral metronidazole
II topical metronidazole
III topical clindamycinCorrectIncorrect - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 points4 woman past menopause who is having repeated UTIs can be treated with
I vaginal estrogen
II cephalosporins
III amoxicillinCorrectIncorrect - Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 points5 Things that increase a woman’s risk of getting UTIs include:
I pregnancy
II Sexual activity,
III Lack of estrogen,CorrectIncorrect - Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 points6 Things that increase a man’s risk of UTIs include:
I benign prostatic hyperplasia
II uncircumcised penis.
III Unprotected sexCorrectIncorrect - Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 points4 most common osteoporosis-related fractures involves which of the following bones
I proximal femur
II vertebrae
III wristCorrectIncorrect - Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 points5 which of the following is true about the T score
I Normal bone mass is a T-score greater than –1
II osteopenia is a Tscore of –1 to –2.4,
III osteoporosis is a T-score at or below –2.5.CorrectIncorrect - Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 points6 what are the non pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis
I limiting caffeine consumption
II Smoking cessation
III Weight-bearing aerobic and strengthening exercisesCorrectIncorrect - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 points7 which of the following are used in osteoporosis
I vitamin D
II Calcium
III BisphosphonatesCorrectIncorrect - Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 points4 which of the following is true about NSAIDs
I NSAIDs are nonselective inhibitors of COX-1
II requires several days of therapy to achieve anti-infl ammatory eff ect.
III Analgesia is seen with short treatment durationCorrectIncorrect - Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 points5 which of the following is correct about the use of tramadol in OA
I used when pain is unrelieved by NSAIDs
II used when the patient cannot take NSAIDs
III used when the patient experiences breakthrough painCorrectIncorrect - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 points6 which of the following is correct about anti-inflammatory action of NSAIDS
I seen with short treatment duration
II response is seen with higher doses
III usually requires several days of therapyCorrectIncorrect - Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 points7 which of the following is selective COX 2 inhibitor
I Ibuprofen
II Celecoxib
III NaproxenCorrectIncorrect - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 points4 which of the following are Nonbiological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (NBDMARDs)
I leflunomide, methotrexate
II sulfasalazine, minocycline.
III hydroxychloroquine,CorrectIncorrect - Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 points5 which of the following are biological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (BDMARDs)
I Etanercept
II Infliximab
III Adalimumab,MethotrexateCorrectIncorrect - Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 points6 which of the following drugs causes infection as a side effect
I anakinra
II Abatacept
III AzathioprineCorrectIncorrect - Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 points7 stomatitis is the adverse reaction of which of the following drugs
I Gold Salts
II Azathioprine
III CyclosporineCorrectIncorrect - Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs cause hyperuricemia;
I Diuretics
II Cyclosporine
III spironolactoneCorrectIncorrect - Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 points5 which of the following is correct about acute gout treatment
I Urate-lowering drugs therapy should begin immediately
II Anti-infl ammatory drug therapy should begin immediately
III Urate-lowering drugs should not be given until the acute attack is controlledCorrectIncorrect - Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 points6 which of the following is correct about the use of NSAIDS in acute gout
I Begin with high doses for 2 to 3 days, then taper the dose rapidly over the next several days
II Begin with low doses for 2 to 3 days, then increase the dose rapidly over the next several days
III begin with low dose and maintain the low doseCorrectIncorrect - Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 points7 NSAIDs, require cautious use in patients with the following conditions
I hypertension
II congestive heart failure (CHF)
III peptic ulcer disease and mild to moderate renal failureCorrectIncorrect - Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 points4 which of the following are the risk factors for peptic ulcer disease
I Smoking.
IINSAIDs.
III Alcohol.CorrectIncorrect - Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 points5 what are the characteristics of pain associated with the peptic ulcer disease
I Food usually relieves duodenal ulcer pain
II Food may cause gastric ulcer pain
III Food may cause gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer painCorrectIncorrect - Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 points6 which of the following is true about the antacids
I neutralize gastric acid
II used to treat ulcer pain
III available as magnesium, aluminum, or calciumCorrectIncorrect - Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 points7 what are the OTC recommendation for symptoms of PUD
I antacid
II H2RA
III H2RA/antacid combinationCorrectIncorrect - Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 points4 main symptoms of IBD includes
I recurring or bloody diarrhoea
II weight loss
III constipationCorrectIncorrect - Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 points5 which of the following are used in treating IBD
I aminosalicylates
II immunosuppressants
III corticosteroidsCorrectIncorrect - Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 points6 which of the following are riskfactors of IBD
I Isotretinoin
II NSAIDS
III vitamin B12CorrectIncorrect - Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 points7which of the following are Aminosalicylates
I Sulfasalazine
II mesalamine
III olsalazineCorrectIncorrect - Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 points4 which of the following is correct about Gestational diabetes mellitus
I elevated plasma glucose during pregnancy
II elevated plasma glucose during and after pregnancy
III elevated plasma glucose before pregnancyCorrectIncorrect - Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 points5 which of the following can cause diabetes mellitus
I glucocorticoids
II antipsychotics
III statinsCorrectIncorrect - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 points6 normal glucose regulation involves which of the following
I insulin
II incretin hormones
III amylin.CorrectIncorrect - Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 points7 which of the following are the fuctions of insulin
I Promotes the cellular uptake of plasma glucose
II Inhibits production of glucose from liver, muscle glycogen, or amino acids
III Stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen and fatCorrectIncorrect - Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 points4 which of the following is the action of calcitonin,
I reduces the blood calcium ion concentration.
II increases the blood calcium ion concentration.
III increases the blood sodium ion concentration.CorrectIncorrect - Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 points5 What are the causes of hypothyroidism
I Hashimoto thyroiditis
II Goiter
III Treatment of hyperthyroidismCorrectIncorrect - Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 points6 what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism
I dry, flaky, inelastic skin
II coarse hair
III slowed speech and thoughtCorrectIncorrect - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 points7 what are the drugs used to treat hypothyroidism
I Levothyroxine
II Liothyronine
III beta blockerCorrectIncorrect - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 points4 Prostaglandins acts in glaucoma by
I decrease the inflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor
II increase the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)
III decrease the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)CorrectIncorrect - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 points5 beta blocker used in glaucoma includes
I timolol
II betaxolol
III atenololCorrectIncorrect - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 points6 which of the following ways beta blocker acts in glaucoma
I induce the production of fluid in your eye
II reduce the production of fluid in your eye
III reduce pressure in eye (intraocular pressure)CorrectIncorrect - Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 points7 which of the following ways Alpha-adrenergic agonists acts in glaucoma
I reduce the production of aqueous humor
II increase outflow of the fluid in eye
III increase the production of aqueous humorCorrectIncorrect - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 points4 Common chronic pain complaints include
I Headache
II Low back pain
III Cancer painCorrectIncorrect - Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 points5 which of the following are used to treat back pain
I paracetamol
II codeine
III diazepamCorrectIncorrect - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 points6 what are the problems associated with the use of ketoprofen during pregnancy
I this medicine may decrease female fertility
II medicine may lengthen or delay labour
III baby may have some problems after birthCorrectIncorrect - Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 points7 which of the following medicine may interact with ketoprofen
I anticoagulants
II antiplatelets
III corticosteroidsCorrectIncorrect