PRACTICE TEST 4

4) which of the following are the symptoms of heart failure
I Dyspnea
II Exertional fatigue and weakness
III urinary incontinance

5 )which of the following drugs are used in heart failure
I ACEIs or ARBs
II diuretics
III beta -adrenergic blockers

6) which of the following are the contraindication to ACEI
I severe renal artery stenosis
II pregnancy.
III diabetes

4 which of the following antibiotics are used in CAP
I Amoxicillin
II tetracycline
III clindamycin

5 which of the antibiotics are used if meticillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) is suspected
I amoxicillin
II vancomycin
III minocycline

6 Initial empirical treatment of adults with Non-severe CAP includes
I oral amoxicillin plus erythromycin or clarithromycin;
II oral moxifloxacin or levofloxacin.
III oral vancomycin

4 in patients with which of the following conditions treatment is started when CD4 count falls below 500.
I hepatitis C
II hepatitis B
III cancer

5 The risk of a person living with HIV, who is taking effective antiretroviral therapy (ART), passing HIV on to sexual partners through vaginal intercourse is very low, under the following conditions
I no other sexually transmitted infections in either partner.
II viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for more than six months
III viral load level below 50 copies/ml (an undetectable viral load) for a week

6 people should do an HIV test if they have had
I have been diagnosed with tuberculosis, hepatitis,
II unprotected sex
III injected drugs

7 the most advanced stage of HIV is
I AIDS
II tuberculosis
III cancer

4 higher proportion of which of the following within the prostate may cause BPH
I estrogen
II DHT
III testosterone

5 Men with the following factors are more likely to develop benign prostatic hyperplasia:
I age 40 years and older
II erectile dysfunction
III family history

6 The complications of benign prostatic hyperplasia may include
I acute urinary retention
II urinary tract infections (UTIs)
III kidney damage

7 which of following are the medical test for BPH
I prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
II complete blood count
III ESR

4 Stress incontinence is usually the result of the weakening or damaging of which of the. following muscles
I pelvic floor muscles
II urethral sphincter
III external sphincter

5 which of the following increase the chances of urinary incontinence
I pregnancy and vaginal birth
II obesity
III increasing age

6 which of the following are some of the measures to improve UI
I losing weight
II pelvic floor exercise
III bladder training

7 activities that may cause urine to
leak in Stress incontinence include
I coughing
II sneezing
III heavy lifting

4 what are the type of tremor associated with parkinsons disease
I resting tremor
II pill-rolling tremor
III action tremor

5 which of the following term describes the difficulty in initiating movements
I Akinesia
II bradykinesia.
III Tremor

6 which of the following is the direct acting dopamine agonist
I carbidopa
II bromocriptine
III levodopa

7 which of the following are the Indirect-acting dopamine agonists
I amantadine
II selegiline
III bromocriptine

4 what are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia
I Affective fl attening, Alogia
II Anhedonia, Amotivation
III Apathy, Asocial behavior

5 what are the Disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia
I Disorganized speech, Disorganized behavior
II Thought disorder
III Poor attention

6 which of the following has less risk for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
I typical antipsychotics
II atypical antipsychotics
III benzodiazepines

7 antipsychotic effect of typical antipsychotics medications is primarily mediated through which kind of mechanism
I the blockade of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
II the activation of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
III the blockade of serotonin receptors

4.which of the following drugs are contraindicated with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Nonsteroidal anti-infl ammatory drugs
III sodium valproate

5 which of the following drugs cause CNS toxicity if used along with lithium
I Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
II Benzodiazepines
III Antipsychotics

6 what is the toxic level of lithium in the blood
I >1.5 mEq/L
II >2 mEq/L
III >0.8 mEq/L

7 acute renal failure is an absolute contraindication of which of the following drugs
I lithium
II Benzodiazepines
III Antipsychotics

4which of the following drugs are used in exercise induced breathlessness
I albuterol
II levalbuterol
III formoterol

5which of the following are long acting beta 2 agonist
I salmeterol
II formoterol
III arformoterol

6which of the following are the mechanism of action of beta 2 agonist
I activating adenyl cyclase
II Increased intracellular Camp
III activation of ATP

7what are the side effects of beta agonist
I tremor
II tachycardia
III hypokalemia at high dose

4 which of the following reduce sputum volume without altering viscosity
I guafenasin
II ipratropium bromide
III tiotropium bromide

5 Which of the following is correct about beta agonist in COPD
I no effect in airway obstruction
II relieve dyspnea
III increase mucociliary clearance

6 Which of the following is correct about Roflumilast
I Roflumilast is a long-acting selective PDE4 inhibitor
II has got anti-infl ammatory effects and mild bronchodilator eff ects
III used in COPD exacerbations

7 what are the adverse effects of Roflumilast
I Weight loss,
II GI intolerance
III suicidality

5 which of the following is/are Generalized seizures
I Absence seizures, Myoclonic seizures
II Clonic seizures, Tonic seizures
III Tonic–clonic seizures (grand mal), Atonic seizures

6 which of the following seizure characterized by unilateral involvement
I complex Partial seizures
II simple Partial seizures
III Absence seizures

7 Motor signs of Simple partial seizures include
I convulsive jerking
II chewing motions
III lip smacking

8 paresthesias and auras are which type of manifestation of Simple partial seizures
I Motor signs
II Sensory and somatosensory manifestations
III Behavioral manifestations

4 Heparin products used in the treatment of DVT include the following
I enoxaparin
II UFH
III Fondaparinux

5 Factor Xa inhibitors used in the treatment of DVT include the following:
I enoxaparin
II Fondaparinux
III Rivaroxaban

6 which of the following are true about the Anticoagulant therapy for DVT
I it does not remove the thrombus
II it is noninvasive
III low risk of complications

4 which of the following are fibrates
I gemfibrozil
II fenofibrate
III bezafibrate

5 which of the following is the drug of choice for hypertriglyceridemia patients with chronic kidney disease
I fenofibrate
II gemfibrozil
III statin

6what is the adverse effect of niacin
I fever
II chemical hepatitis.
III pancreatitis

4 In Ischemic strokes Emboli can arise from
I intra- or extracranial arteries
II the heart.
III the lung

5 Hemorrhagic strokes include
I subarachnoid hemorrhage
II intracerebral hemorrhage
III subdural hematomas

6 what are the symptoms of stroke
I weakness on one side of the body
II inability to speak, loss of vision
III vertigo, or falling

4 what are the causes of Increased use of iron
I pregnancy
II peptic ulcer
III neuropathy

5 what are the symptoms of iron deficency anemia
I tiredness, weakness
II glossitis
III insomnia

6 Prophylaxis with an iron preparation may be appropriate in which of the following conditions
I malabsorption
II menorrhagia
III pregnancy

4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III Amoxicillin

5 which of the following drugs used in gingivitis
I Metronidazole
II amoxicillin
III doxycycline

6 Bacterial vaginosis is treated with the following drugs
I Oral metronidazole
II topical metronidazole
III topical clindamycin

4 woman past menopause who is having repeated UTIs can be treated with
I vaginal estrogen
II cephalosporins
III amoxicillin

5 Things that increase a woman’s risk of getting UTIs include:
I pregnancy
II Sexual activity,
III Lack of estrogen,

6 Things that increase a man’s risk of UTIs include:
I benign prostatic hyperplasia
II uncircumcised penis.
III Unprotected sex

4 most common osteoporosis-related fractures involves which of the following bones
I proximal femur
II vertebrae
III wrist

5 which of the following is true about the T score
I Normal bone mass is a T-score greater than –1
II osteopenia is a Tscore of –1 to –2.4,
III osteoporosis is a T-score at or below –2.5.

6 what are the non pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis
I limiting caffeine consumption
II Smoking cessation
III Weight-bearing aerobic and strengthening exercises

7 which of the following are used in osteoporosis
I vitamin D
II Calcium
III Bisphosphonates

4 which of the following is true about NSAIDs
I NSAIDs are nonselective inhibitors of COX-1
II requires several days of therapy to achieve anti-infl ammatory eff ect.
III Analgesia is seen with short treatment duration

5 which of the following is correct about the use of tramadol in OA
I used when pain is unrelieved by NSAIDs
II used when the patient cannot take NSAIDs
III used when the patient experiences breakthrough pain

6 which of the following is correct about anti-inflammatory action of NSAIDS
I seen with short treatment duration
II response is seen with higher doses
III usually requires several days of therapy

7 which of the following is selective COX 2 inhibitor
I Ibuprofen
II Celecoxib
III Naproxen

4 which of the following are Nonbiological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (NBDMARDs)
I leflunomide, methotrexate
II sulfasalazine, minocycline.
III hydroxychloroquine,

5 which of the following are biological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (BDMARDs)
I Etanercept
II Infliximab
III Adalimumab,Methotrexate

6 which of the following drugs causes infection as a side effect
I anakinra
II Abatacept
III Azathioprine

7 stomatitis is the adverse reaction of which of the following drugs
I Gold Salts
II Azathioprine
III Cyclosporine

4 which of the following drugs cause hyperuricemia;
I Diuretics
II Cyclosporine
III spironolactone

5 which of the following is correct about acute gout treatment
I Urate-lowering drugs therapy should begin immediately
II Anti-infl ammatory drug therapy should begin immediately
III Urate-lowering drugs should not be given until the acute attack is controlled

6 which of the following is correct about the use of NSAIDS in acute gout
I Begin with high doses for 2 to 3 days, then taper the dose rapidly over the next several days
II Begin with low doses for 2 to 3 days, then increase the dose rapidly over the next several days
III begin with low dose and maintain the low dose

7 NSAIDs, require cautious use in patients with the following conditions
I hypertension
II congestive heart failure (CHF)
III peptic ulcer disease and mild to moderate renal failure

4 which of the following are the risk factors for peptic ulcer disease
I Smoking.
IINSAIDs.
III Alcohol.

5 what are the characteristics of pain associated with the peptic ulcer disease
I Food usually relieves duodenal ulcer pain
II Food may cause gastric ulcer pain
III Food may cause gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer pain

6 which of the following is true about the antacids
I neutralize gastric acid
II used to treat ulcer pain
III available as magnesium, aluminum, or calcium

7 what are the OTC recommendation for symptoms of PUD
I antacid
II H2RA
III H2RA/antacid combination

4 main symptoms of IBD includes
I recurring or bloody diarrhoea
II weight loss
III constipation

5 which of the following are used in treating IBD
I aminosalicylates
II immunosuppressants
III corticosteroids

6 which of the following are riskfactors of IBD
I Isotretinoin
II NSAIDS
III vitamin B12

7which of the following are Aminosalicylates
I Sulfasalazine
II mesalamine
III olsalazine

4 which of the following is correct about Gestational diabetes mellitus
I elevated plasma glucose during pregnancy
II elevated plasma glucose during and after pregnancy
III elevated plasma glucose before pregnancy

5 which of the following can cause diabetes mellitus
I glucocorticoids
II antipsychotics
III statins

6 normal glucose regulation involves which of the following
I insulin
II incretin hormones
III amylin.

7 which of the following are the fuctions of insulin
I Promotes the cellular uptake of plasma glucose
II Inhibits production of glucose from liver, muscle glycogen, or amino acids
III Stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen and fat

4 which of the following is the action of calcitonin,
I reduces the blood calcium ion concentration.
II increases the blood calcium ion concentration.
III increases the blood sodium ion concentration.

5 What are the causes of hypothyroidism
I Hashimoto thyroiditis
II Goiter
III Treatment of hyperthyroidism

6 what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism
I dry, flaky, inelastic skin
II coarse hair
III slowed speech and thought

7 what are the drugs used to treat hypothyroidism
I Levothyroxine
II Liothyronine
III beta blocker

4 Prostaglandins acts in glaucoma by
I decrease the inflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor
II increase the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)
III decrease the outflow of the fluid in eye (aqueous humor)

5 beta blocker used in glaucoma includes
I timolol
II betaxolol
III atenolol

6 which of the following ways beta blocker acts in glaucoma
I induce the production of fluid in your eye
II reduce the production of fluid in your eye
III reduce pressure in eye (intraocular pressure)

7 which of the following ways Alpha-adrenergic agonists acts in glaucoma
I reduce the production of aqueous humor
II increase outflow of the fluid in eye
III increase the production of aqueous humor

4 Common chronic pain complaints include
I Headache
II Low back pain
III Cancer pain

5 which of the following are used to treat back pain
I paracetamol
II codeine
III diazepam

6 what are the problems associated with the use of ketoprofen during pregnancy
I this medicine may decrease female fertility
II medicine may lengthen or delay labour
III baby may have some problems after birth

7 which of the following medicine may interact with ketoprofen
I anticoagulants
II antiplatelets
III corticosteroids