PRACTICE TEST 1

which of the following best describes heart failure

I impairment of the ability of the ventricle to deliver of blood to the metabolizing tissues
II impairment of the ability of the ventricle to deliver of blood to the lung tissue
III impairment of the ability of the auricle to deliver of blood to the metabolizing tissues

2)which of the following best describes the heart failure classification
I Class I. HF symptoms occurs while at rest.
II Class II. HF symptoms occurs with ordinary exertion
III Class III :HF symptoms occurs with less-than-ordinary exertion.

1 which of the following are the symptoms of DVT
I Edema
II Leg pain
III Tenderness

2 Potential complications of DVT include the following
I heart failure
II Postthrombotic syndrome (PTS)
III Paradoxic emboli

1 which of the following are statins
I simvastatin
II atorvastatin
III rosuvastatin

2which of the following are the actions of statins
I lower triglycerides,
II raise high-density lipoprotein
III raise low-density lipoprotein

1 which of the following statements are true about stroke
I an abrupt onset of focal neurologic deficit
II lasts at least 24 hours
III either ischemic or hemorrhagic in origin

2 modifiable risk factors for stroke include
I hypertension, atrial fibrillation
II diabetes mellitus, dyslipidaemia
III cigarette smoking

1 most likely organisms that causes community acquired pneumonia are
I S. pneumoniae, S. aureus,
II Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,
III Chlamydophila pneumoniae

2 symptoms of( CAP) community acquired pneumonia includes
I cough
II purulent sputum which may be blood-stained
III breathlessness, fever, malaise.

1 which of the following statements are true about post-exposure prophylaxis or PEP in HIV treatment
I must be started within 72 hours of coming into contact with the virus.
II PEP is a month-long treatment
III start within 24 hrs of exposure to virus

2 which of the of cell count is done in HIV patients
I leucocyte count
II CD4+ve lymphocyte cells
III monocyte count

1 what are the common types anemias
I Iron deficiency anaemia,Thalassaemia
II Aplastic anaemia,Haemolytic anaemia
III Sickle cell anaemia,Pernicious anaemia,Fanconi anaemia

2 what are the common cause of iron deficency anemia
I Chronic blood loss
II Increased use of iron
III increased absorption of iron

1 which of the following drugs are used staphylococci infection
I benzylpenicillin
II Flucloxacillin
III penicillin

2 which of the following is(are)true regarding the treatment of throat infection
I In severe infection, initial parenteral therapy with benzylpenicillin
II then oral therapy with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin
III Suggested duration of treatment 10 days

1 tube that carries urine from bladder to the outside of body is called
I ovarian tube
II urethra
III external urethra

2 chances of bladder infection is higher in following conditions
I diabetes
II pregnancy
III kidney stones

1 a condition where prostate gland gets enlarged
I bladder infection
II benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
III pylonephritis

2 symptoms of BPH include:
I Frequent or urgent need to urinate
II Difficulty starting urination
III Increased frequency of urination at night

1 unintentional passing of urine is called
I benign prostatic hyperplasia
II Urinary incontinence
III urinary tract infection

2 types of urinary incontinence includes
I stress incontinence
II urge incontinence
III mixed incontinence

1 what are the symptoms of parkinsons disease
I tremor
II rigidity
III bradykinesia

2 which of the following is true about parkinsons disease
I distinctive motor disability
II loss of dopaminergic input to the basal ganglia
III depigmentation of the substantia nigra

1 which of the following are the symptoms of schizophrenia
I delusions, hallucinations
II isorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior
III pressured speech

2 in which types of schizophrenia motor symptoms are most notable
I Paranoid
II Catatonic
III Residual

1what are the adverse effects associated with the long term use of lithium
I Polyuria
II Hypothyroidism
III Decreased libido

2. Which of the following drugs are used in bipolar disorder
I lithium
II sodium valproate
III gabapentin

1which of the following are the risk factors for asthma
I viral infection
II stress
III bacterial infection

2what are the symptoms of mild asthma
I breathlessness while walking
II speak in sentence
III moderate wheezing

4 which of the following seizure is characterized by impairment of consciousness
I Simple partial seizures
II Complex partial seizures
III Absence seizures

1 COPD is characterised by which of the following
I Chronic bronchitis
II Emphysema
III anemia

2 COPD is treated with which of the following drugs
I beta blockers
II anticholinergics
III beta agonist

1 an excessive, hypersynchronous discharge of cortical neuron activity is called
I Seizures
II Epilepsy
III Convulsions

4 which of the following seizure is characterized by impairment of consciousness
I Simple partial seizures
II Complex partial seizures
III Absence seizures

1 which of the following are true about the osteoporosis
I bone resorption exceeds bone formation
II reduced bone mineral density (BMD)
III bone formation exceeds bone resorption

2 which of the following happens during menopause in women
I activation of new osteoclasts
II prolongs survival of mature osteoclasts
III bone resorption more than formation

3 which of the following drugs can cause osteoporosis
I systemic corticosteroids(prednisone doses greater than 7.5 mg/day),
II thyroid hormone replacement
III antiepileptic drugs (e.g., phenytoin, phenobarbital)

1 what are the risk factors for osteoarthritis
I age, female gender
II obesity, joint trauma,
III smoking

2 what are the symptoms of osteoarthritis (OA)
I severe Inflammation,
II deep, localized ache in a joint.
III pain lasts <30 mins

3 which of the following is true about acetaminofen
I considered fi rst-line therapy by the ACR for OA.
II Hepatotoxicity can occur in patients taking >4 g
III useful in inflamation

1 which of the following is correct about Rheumatoid factor (RF)
I found in >60% of patients with RA
II RF is not an accurate measure of disease progression
III RF is an accurate measure of disease progression

2 which of the following factors are correct about (RA )Rheumatoid Arthritis assessment
I (Rf) Rheumatoid factor is found in >60% of patients with RA
II Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are usually elevated in patients with RA.
III C-reactive protein (CRP) are usually decreased in patients with RA.

3 which of the following is correct about Nonbiological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (NBDMARDs)
I reduce joint fuction
II reduce or prevent joint damage
III considered within 3 months of diagnosis of RA

1 which of the following statement are correct about gout
I it is the deposition of monosodium urate—in and around the joints
II it is the recurrent painful acute attacks of urate crystal-induced arthritis
III it is the elevation of serum uric acid level above normal

2 which of the following are true about uric acid
I Uric acid is an end product of purine metabolism
II Xanthine oxidase catalyzes degradation of purines to uric acid
III uric acid is excreated via the kidneys (300–600 mg/day)

3 hyperuricemia is a result of which of the following
I uric acid underproduction
II uric acid overproduction
III impaired renal clearance of uric acid

1 peptic ulcer disease is the circumscribed lesions of the mucosa of which part of the body
I stomach
II duodenum
III large intestine

2 which of the following is correct about the peptic ulcer disease
I duodenal ulcer are larger (1.0 to 2.5 cm in diameter)
II duodenal ulcer typically has a diameter <1 cm;
III gastric ulcers are larger (1.0 to 2.5 cm in diameter)

3 which of the bacteria is associated with peptic ulcer disease
I E.coli
II H. pylori
III H. pylori and salmonella

1 Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) including
I ulcerative colitis
II Crohn’s disease.
III megacolon

2 which of the following only affects the colon
I Ulcerative colitis
II peptic ulcer
IIIcrohns disease

3 Crohn’s disease can affect
I mouth only
II entire digestive system,
III stomach only

1 which of the following condition is characterized by absolute insulin deficiency
I Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
II Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
III Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

2 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)

I absolute insulin deficiency
II autoimmune destruction of the beta -cells of the islets of Langerhans
III requires insulin therapy

3 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
I most common form of DM
II autoantibodies are absent in T2DM.
III obesity is a risk factor

1 which of the following are thyroid hormone
I thyroxine
II triiodothyronine
III TSH

2 Which of the following is true aboutthyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin; TSH).
I Th yroid hormone secretion and transport are controlled by thyroid-stimulating hormone
II TSH is released by the anterior pituitary gland
III its release is triggered by thyrotropinreleasing hormone (TRH),

3 calcitonin is released by which of the following gland
I thyroid gland
II anterior pituitary gland
III hypothalamus.

1 which of the following statements are true about glaucoma
I condition that causes damage to your eye’s optic nerve
II associated with a buildup of pressure inside the eye.
III associated with a lowering of pressure inside the eye.

2 glaucoma treatment goal is
I lower eye pressure
II improve drainage of fluid in your eye
III lower the amount of fluid produced in your eye.

3 which of the following are prostaglandins for the treatment of glaucoma
I latanoprost
II bimatoprost
III bromocriptine

1 what are the causes of acute pain
I Surgery
II Broken bones
III fungal infections

2 which of the following are true about acute pain
I does not last longer than six months
II disappears when the underlying cause of pain has been treated
III may lead to chronic pain.

3 pain persists longer than 3 months is called
I Chronic pain
II acute pain
III neuropathic pain

1 which of the following are the symptoms of schizophrenia
I delusions, hallucinations
II isorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior
III pressured speech

2 in which types of schizophrenia motor symptoms are most notable
I Paranoid
II Catatonic
III Residual

3.what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
I Delusions, Hallucinations
II Combativeness
III Insomnia

1what are the adverse effects associated with the long term use of lithium
I Polyuria
II Hypothyroidism
III Decreased libido

2. Which of the following drugs are used in bipolar disorder
I lithium
II sodium valproate
III gabapentin

3what makes sodium valproate not a good choice in bipolar disorder in women of childbearing age
I VPA cause breast cancer
II VPA cause polycystic ovarian syndrome
III VPA cause hair loss

1which of the following are the risk factors for asthma
I viral infection
II stress
III bacterial infection

2what are the symptoms of mild asthma
I breathlessness while walking
II speak in sentence
III moderate wheezing

3breathlessness at rest is symptoms of which stage of asthma
I mild
II severe
III moderate

1 COPD is characterised by which of the following
I Chronic bronchitis
II Emphysema
III anemia

2 COPD is treated with which of the following drugs
I beta blockers
II anticholinergics
III beta agonist

3 which of the following drug has more affinity towards cholinergic receptors
I ipratropium bromide
II tiotropium bromide
III atropine

1 an excessive, hypersynchronous discharge of cortical neuron activity is called
I Seizures
II Epilepsy
III Convulsions

2 Violent, involuntary contractions of the voluntary muscles is called
I Seizures
II Convulsions
III Epilepsy

3 according to the international classification seizure are classified in to which of the following categaries
I Partial seizures
II Generalized seizures
III Unclassifi ed seizures

3) which of the following are the drugs that Promote Sodium Retention
I Lithium carbonate
II NSAIDs
III Estrogens

3 general measures for CAP include
I Oxygen for hypoxia;
II Fluids for dehydration.
III Analgesics for mild pleuritic pain

3 which of the following are true about HIV treatment
I monitoring the amount of virus in your blood is necessary
II Treatment is usually begin when CD4 cell count falls towards 350 or below
III monitoring is started only after the treatment started

3 which of following statements are true about prostate
I The gland surrounds the urethra
II make a fluid that goes into semen
III essential for a man’s fertility.

3 urine leaks out at times when your bladder is under pressure is called
I stress incontinence
II urge incontinence
III mixed incontinence

4 what are the type of tremor associated with parkinsons disease
I resting tremor
II pill-rolling tremor
III action tremor

3.what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
I Delusions, Hallucinations
II Combativeness
III Insomnia

3 Treatment options for DVT include the following:
I Anticoagulation
II Pharmacologic thrombolysis
III elastic compression stockings and ambulation

3 medications that are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations includes
I fibric acid derivatives
II niacin
III omega-3 fatty acids

3 which of the following occur due either to local thrombus formation or to emboli that occlude a cerebral artery.
I Ischemic strokes
II Hemorrhagic strokes
III Hemorrhagic strokes and Ischemic strokes

3 what are the reasons for chronic blood loss
I excessive menstruation
II bleeding as a result of a peptic ulcer
III inflammatory bowel disease

4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III Amoxicillin

3 what are the symptoms of UTI
I feel pain or burning when urinate
II urine is cloudy, looks pink or red, or smells bad.
III fever and chills.

4) which of the following are the symptoms of heart failure
I Dyspnea
II Exertional fatigue and weakness
III urinary incontinance

4 Heparin products used in the treatment of DVT include the following
I enoxaparin
II UFH
III Fondaparinux

4 which of the following are fibrates
I gemfibrozil
II fenofibrate
III bezafibrate

4 In Ischemic strokes Emboli can arise from
I intra- or extracranial arteries
II the heart.
III the lung

4 what are the causes of Increased use of iron
I pregnancy
II peptic ulcer
III neuropathy

4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III Amoxicillin

4 woman past menopause who is having repeated UTIs can be treated with
I vaginal estrogen
II cephalosporins
III amoxicillin