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Categories
- Not categorized 0%
- Anemias 0%
- Asthma 0%
- Benign prostatic hyperplasia 0%
- Bipolar disorder 0%
- Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 0%
- Deep vein thrombosis 0%
- Diabetes Mellitus 0%
- Glaucoma 0%
- Heart Failure 0%
- HIV 0%
- Hyperlipidaemia 0%
- Hyperuricemia and Gout 0%
- Infectious Diseases 0%
- Inflammatory Bowel Disease 0%
- Osteoarthritis 0%
- osteoporosis 0%
- Pain Management 0%
- Parkinson Disease 0%
- Peptic Ulcer Disease 0%
- Rheumatoid Arthritis 0%
- Schizophrenia 0%
- Seizure Disorders 0%
- Stroke 0%
- Thyroid Disease 0%
- Urinary incontinence 0%
- Urinary tract infections 0%
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- Answered
- Review
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Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 pointswhich of the following best describes heart failure
I impairment of the ability of the ventricle to deliver of blood to the metabolizing tissues
II impairment of the ability of the ventricle to deliver of blood to the lung tissue
III impairment of the ability of the auricle to deliver of blood to the metabolizing tissuesCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 points2)which of the following best describes the heart failure classification
I Class I. HF symptoms occurs while at rest.
II Class II. HF symptoms occurs with ordinary exertion
III Class III :HF symptoms occurs with less-than-ordinary exertion.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 points1 which of the following are the symptoms of DVT
I Edema
II Leg pain
III TendernessCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 points2 Potential complications of DVT include the following
I heart failure
II Postthrombotic syndrome (PTS)
III Paradoxic emboliCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 points1 which of the following are statins
I simvastatin
II atorvastatin
III rosuvastatinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 points2which of the following are the actions of statins
I lower triglycerides,
II raise high-density lipoprotein
III raise low-density lipoproteinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 points1 which of the following statements are true about stroke
I an abrupt onset of focal neurologic deficit
II lasts at least 24 hours
III either ischemic or hemorrhagic in originCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 points2 modifiable risk factors for stroke include
I hypertension, atrial fibrillation
II diabetes mellitus, dyslipidaemia
III cigarette smokingCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 points1 most likely organisms that causes community acquired pneumonia are
I S. pneumoniae, S. aureus,
II Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae,
III Chlamydophila pneumoniaeCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 points2 symptoms of( CAP) community acquired pneumonia includes
I cough
II purulent sputum which may be blood-stained
III breathlessness, fever, malaise.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 points1 which of the following statements are true about post-exposure prophylaxis or PEP in HIV treatment
I must be started within 72 hours of coming into contact with the virus.
II PEP is a month-long treatment
III start within 24 hrs of exposure to virusCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 points2 which of the of cell count is done in HIV patients
I leucocyte count
II CD4+ve lymphocyte cells
III monocyte countCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 points1 what are the common types anemias
I Iron deficiency anaemia,Thalassaemia
II Aplastic anaemia,Haemolytic anaemia
III Sickle cell anaemia,Pernicious anaemia,Fanconi anaemiaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 points2 what are the common cause of iron deficency anemia
I Chronic blood loss
II Increased use of iron
III increased absorption of ironCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 points1 which of the following drugs are used staphylococci infection
I benzylpenicillin
II Flucloxacillin
III penicillinCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 points2 which of the following is(are)true regarding the treatment of throat infection
I In severe infection, initial parenteral therapy with benzylpenicillin
II then oral therapy with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin
III Suggested duration of treatment 10 daysCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 points1 tube that carries urine from bladder to the outside of body is called
I ovarian tube
II urethra
III external urethraCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 points2 chances of bladder infection is higher in following conditions
I diabetes
II pregnancy
III kidney stonesCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 points1 a condition where prostate gland gets enlarged
I bladder infection
II benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
III pylonephritisCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 points2 symptoms of BPH include:
I Frequent or urgent need to urinate
II Difficulty starting urination
III Increased frequency of urination at nightCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 points1 unintentional passing of urine is called
I benign prostatic hyperplasia
II Urinary incontinence
III urinary tract infectionCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 points2 types of urinary incontinence includes
I stress incontinence
II urge incontinence
III mixed incontinenceCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 points1 what are the symptoms of parkinsons disease
I tremor
II rigidity
III bradykinesiaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 points2 which of the following is true about parkinsons disease
I distinctive motor disability
II loss of dopaminergic input to the basal ganglia
III depigmentation of the substantia nigraCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 points1 which of the following are the symptoms of schizophrenia
I delusions, hallucinations
II isorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior
III pressured speechCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 points2 in which types of schizophrenia motor symptoms are most notable
I Paranoid
II Catatonic
III ResidualCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 points1what are the adverse effects associated with the long term use of lithium
I Polyuria
II Hypothyroidism
III Decreased libidoCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 points2. Which of the following drugs are used in bipolar disorder
I lithium
II sodium valproate
III gabapentinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 points1which of the following are the risk factors for asthma
I viral infection
II stress
III bacterial infectionCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 points2what are the symptoms of mild asthma
I breathlessness while walking
II speak in sentence
III moderate wheezingCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 points4 which of the following seizure is characterized by impairment of consciousness
I Simple partial seizures
II Complex partial seizures
III Absence seizuresCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 points1 COPD is characterised by which of the following
I Chronic bronchitis
II Emphysema
III anemiaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 points2 COPD is treated with which of the following drugs
I beta blockers
II anticholinergics
III beta agonistCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 points1 an excessive, hypersynchronous discharge of cortical neuron activity is called
I Seizures
II Epilepsy
III ConvulsionsCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 points4 which of the following seizure is characterized by impairment of consciousness
I Simple partial seizures
II Complex partial seizures
III Absence seizuresCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 points1 which of the following are true about the osteoporosis
I bone resorption exceeds bone formation
II reduced bone mineral density (BMD)
III bone formation exceeds bone resorptionCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 points2 which of the following happens during menopause in women
I activation of new osteoclasts
II prolongs survival of mature osteoclasts
III bone resorption more than formationCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 points3 which of the following drugs can cause osteoporosis
I systemic corticosteroids(prednisone doses greater than 7.5 mg/day),
II thyroid hormone replacement
III antiepileptic drugs (e.g., phenytoin, phenobarbital)Correct
Incorrect
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Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 points1 what are the risk factors for osteoarthritis
I age, female gender
II obesity, joint trauma,
III smokingCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 points2 what are the symptoms of osteoarthritis (OA)
I severe Inflammation,
II deep, localized ache in a joint.
III pain lasts <30 minsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 points3 which of the following is true about acetaminofen
I considered fi rst-line therapy by the ACR for OA.
II Hepatotoxicity can occur in patients taking >4 g
III useful in inflamationCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 points1 which of the following is correct about Rheumatoid factor (RF)
I found in >60% of patients with RA
II RF is not an accurate measure of disease progression
III RF is an accurate measure of disease progressionCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 points2 which of the following factors are correct about (RA )Rheumatoid Arthritis assessment
I (Rf) Rheumatoid factor is found in >60% of patients with RA
II Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are usually elevated in patients with RA.
III C-reactive protein (CRP) are usually decreased in patients with RA.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 points3 which of the following is correct about Nonbiological disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (NBDMARDs)
I reduce joint fuction
II reduce or prevent joint damage
III considered within 3 months of diagnosis of RACorrect
Incorrect
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Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 points1 which of the following statement are correct about gout
I it is the deposition of monosodium urate—in and around the joints
II it is the recurrent painful acute attacks of urate crystal-induced arthritis
III it is the elevation of serum uric acid level above normalCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 points2 which of the following are true about uric acid
I Uric acid is an end product of purine metabolism
II Xanthine oxidase catalyzes degradation of purines to uric acid
III uric acid is excreated via the kidneys (300–600 mg/day)Correct
Incorrect
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Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 points3 hyperuricemia is a result of which of the following
I uric acid underproduction
II uric acid overproduction
III impaired renal clearance of uric acidCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 points1 peptic ulcer disease is the circumscribed lesions of the mucosa of which part of the body
I stomach
II duodenum
III large intestineCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 points2 which of the following is correct about the peptic ulcer disease
I duodenal ulcer are larger (1.0 to 2.5 cm in diameter)
II duodenal ulcer typically has a diameter <1 cm;
III gastric ulcers are larger (1.0 to 2.5 cm in diameter)Correct
Incorrect
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Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 points3 which of the bacteria is associated with peptic ulcer disease
I E.coli
II H. pylori
III H. pylori and salmonellaCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 points1 Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) including
I ulcerative colitis
II Crohn’s disease.
III megacolonCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 points2 which of the following only affects the colon
I Ulcerative colitis
II peptic ulcer
IIIcrohns diseaseCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 points3 Crohn’s disease can affect
I mouth only
II entire digestive system,
III stomach onlyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 points1 which of the following condition is characterized by absolute insulin deficiency
I Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
II Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
III Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)Correct
Incorrect
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Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 points2 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
I absolute insulin deficiency
II autoimmune destruction of the beta -cells of the islets of Langerhans
III requires insulin therapyCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 points3 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
I most common form of DM
II autoantibodies are absent in T2DM.
III obesity is a risk factorCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 points1 which of the following are thyroid hormone
I thyroxine
II triiodothyronine
III TSHCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 points2 Which of the following is true aboutthyroid-stimulating hormone (thyrotropin; TSH).
I Th yroid hormone secretion and transport are controlled by thyroid-stimulating hormone
II TSH is released by the anterior pituitary gland
III its release is triggered by thyrotropinreleasing hormone (TRH),Correct
Incorrect
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Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 points3 calcitonin is released by which of the following gland
I thyroid gland
II anterior pituitary gland
III hypothalamus.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 points1 which of the following statements are true about glaucoma
I condition that causes damage to your eye’s optic nerve
II associated with a buildup of pressure inside the eye.
III associated with a lowering of pressure inside the eye.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 points2 glaucoma treatment goal is
I lower eye pressure
II improve drainage of fluid in your eye
III lower the amount of fluid produced in your eye.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 points3 which of the following are prostaglandins for the treatment of glaucoma
I latanoprost
II bimatoprost
III bromocriptineCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 points1 what are the causes of acute pain
I Surgery
II Broken bones
III fungal infectionsCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 points2 which of the following are true about acute pain
I does not last longer than six months
II disappears when the underlying cause of pain has been treated
III may lead to chronic pain.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 points3 pain persists longer than 3 months is called
I Chronic pain
II acute pain
III neuropathic painCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 points1 which of the following are the symptoms of schizophrenia
I delusions, hallucinations
II isorganized speech, disorganized or catatonic behavior
III pressured speechCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 points2 in which types of schizophrenia motor symptoms are most notable
I Paranoid
II Catatonic
III ResidualCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 points3.what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
I Delusions, Hallucinations
II Combativeness
III InsomniaCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 points1what are the adverse effects associated with the long term use of lithium
I Polyuria
II Hypothyroidism
III Decreased libidoCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 points2. Which of the following drugs are used in bipolar disorder
I lithium
II sodium valproate
III gabapentinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 points3what makes sodium valproate not a good choice in bipolar disorder in women of childbearing age
I VPA cause breast cancer
II VPA cause polycystic ovarian syndrome
III VPA cause hair lossCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 points1which of the following are the risk factors for asthma
I viral infection
II stress
III bacterial infectionCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 points2what are the symptoms of mild asthma
I breathlessness while walking
II speak in sentence
III moderate wheezingCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 points3breathlessness at rest is symptoms of which stage of asthma
I mild
II severe
III moderateCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 points1 COPD is characterised by which of the following
I Chronic bronchitis
II Emphysema
III anemiaCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 points2 COPD is treated with which of the following drugs
I beta blockers
II anticholinergics
III beta agonistCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 points3 which of the following drug has more affinity towards cholinergic receptors
I ipratropium bromide
II tiotropium bromide
III atropineCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 points1 an excessive, hypersynchronous discharge of cortical neuron activity is called
I Seizures
II Epilepsy
III ConvulsionsCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 points2 Violent, involuntary contractions of the voluntary muscles is called
I Seizures
II Convulsions
III EpilepsyCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 points3 according to the international classification seizure are classified in to which of the following categaries
I Partial seizures
II Generalized seizures
III Unclassifi ed seizuresCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 points3) which of the following are the drugs that Promote Sodium Retention
I Lithium carbonate
II NSAIDs
III EstrogensCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 points3 general measures for CAP include
I Oxygen for hypoxia;
II Fluids for dehydration.
III Analgesics for mild pleuritic painCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 points3 which of the following are true about HIV treatment
I monitoring the amount of virus in your blood is necessary
II Treatment is usually begin when CD4 cell count falls towards 350 or below
III monitoring is started only after the treatment startedCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 points3 which of following statements are true about prostate
I The gland surrounds the urethra
II make a fluid that goes into semen
III essential for a man’s fertility.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 points3 urine leaks out at times when your bladder is under pressure is called
I stress incontinence
II urge incontinence
III mixed incontinenceCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 points4 what are the type of tremor associated with parkinsons disease
I resting tremor
II pill-rolling tremor
III action tremorCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 points3.what are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
I Delusions, Hallucinations
II Combativeness
III InsomniaCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 points3 Treatment options for DVT include the following:
I Anticoagulation
II Pharmacologic thrombolysis
III elastic compression stockings and ambulationCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 points3 medications that are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations includes
I fibric acid derivatives
II niacin
III omega-3 fatty acidsCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 points3 which of the following occur due either to local thrombus formation or to emboli that occlude a cerebral artery.
I Ischemic strokes
II Hemorrhagic strokes
III Hemorrhagic strokes and Ischemic strokesCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 points3 what are the reasons for chronic blood loss
I excessive menstruation
II bleeding as a result of a peptic ulcer
III inflammatory bowel diseaseCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III AmoxicillinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 points3 what are the symptoms of UTI
I feel pain or burning when urinate
II urine is cloudy, looks pink or red, or smells bad.
III fever and chills.Correct
Incorrect
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Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 points4) which of the following are the symptoms of heart failure
I Dyspnea
II Exertional fatigue and weakness
III urinary incontinanceCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 points4 Heparin products used in the treatment of DVT include the following
I enoxaparin
II UFH
III FondaparinuxCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 points4 which of the following are fibrates
I gemfibrozil
II fenofibrate
III bezafibrateCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 points4 In Ischemic strokes Emboli can arise from
I intra- or extracranial arteries
II the heart.
III the lungCorrect
Incorrect
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Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 points4 what are the causes of Increased use of iron
I pregnancy
II peptic ulcer
III neuropathyCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 points4 which of the following drugs are used in sinusitis
I clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III AmoxicillinCorrect
Incorrect
-
Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 points4 woman past menopause who is having repeated UTIs can be treated with
I vaginal estrogen
II cephalosporins
III amoxicillinCorrect
Incorrect