Coronary Artery Disease
Cardiac Arrhythmias
Hypertension
Heart Failure
Acute coronary syndromes
Hyperlipidaemia
Stroke
Deep vein thrombosis
Shock
Anemias
Infectious Diseases
Hepatic Disorders
Cancer Chemotherapy
Pain Management
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- Answered
- Review
- Question 1 of 100
1. Question
1 points7) which of the following are the actions of ACEI
I block conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
II decreases total peripheral resistance
III reduces afterloadCorrectIncorrect - Question 2 of 100
2. Question
1 points8 )which of the following is a life threatening side eff ect of ACEIs
I Angioedema
II hypotension
III hyperkalemiaCorrectIncorrect - Question 3 of 100
3. Question
1 points9 )which of the following are ARBs
I candesartan cilexetil , eprosartan
II irbesartan , losartan
III olmesartan , telmisartan and valsartanCorrectIncorrect - Question 4 of 100
4. Question
1 points10) which of the following drugs are used in heart failure
I bisoprolol
II metoprolol
III carvedilolCorrectIncorrect - Question 5 of 100
5. Question
1 points7 Initial empirical treatment of adults with. Severe CAP includes
I intravenous co-amoxiclav plus erythromycin/clarithromycin
II intravenous vancomycin plus erythromycin/clarithromycin
III oral vancomycin plus erythromycin/clarithromycinCorrectIncorrect - Question 6 of 100
6. Question
1 points8 CAP is commonly due to pulmonary infection with
I Chlamydophila pneumoniae
II Mycoplasma pneumoniae
III Legionella pneumophilaCorrectIncorrect - Question 7 of 100
7. Question
1 points9 Effective monotherapy antibiotics for CAP include
I doxycycline
II minocycline
III amoxicillinCorrectIncorrect - Question 8 of 100
8. Question
1 points10 S pneumoniae strains are naturally resistant to which of the following class of drugs
I tetracycline
II macrolides
IIIpencillinsCorrectIncorrect - Question 9 of 100
9. Question
1 points7 which of the following drug exert their anticoagulant effect by inhibiting the activity of activated factor X.
I Fondaparinux
II enoxaparin
III HeparinCorrectIncorrect - Question 10 of 100
10. Question
1 points8 Fondaparinux acts by
I by inhibiting the activity of activated factor X.
II selective inhibition of factor Xa,
III by inhibiting the activity of activated antithrombinCorrectIncorrect - Question 11 of 100
11. Question
1 points9 which of the following are Factor Xa and Direct Thrombin Inhibitors
I Apixaban
II Rivaroxaban
III DabigatranCorrectIncorrect - Question 12 of 100
12. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the indications of Dabigatran
I reduce the risk of stroke and systemic embolism in patients with nonvalvular atrial fibrillation
II treatment of DVT and PE in patients who have been treated with a parenteral anticoagulant for 5-10 days
III reduce the risk of DVT and PE recurrence in patients who have been previously treatedCorrectIncorrect - Question 13 of 100
13. Question
1 points7 what is the dose of niacin in hypertrigliceridimia
I 1500 or more mg/d
II 3500 or more mg/d
III 750 or more mg/dCorrectIncorrect - Question 14 of 100
14. Question
1 points8 niacin is
I vitamin B-3
II vitamin B-6
III vitamin B-12CorrectIncorrect - Question 15 of 100
15. Question
1 points9 which of the following can raise triglycerides
I statins
II Bile acid sequestrants
III fibratesCorrectIncorrect - Question 16 of 100
16. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the side effect of statin
I muscle pain
II tenderness
III weaknessCorrectIncorrect - Question 17 of 100
17. Question
1 points7 what are the approaches in acute episodes of stroke
I Elevated blood pressure should remain untreated in the acute period
II The pressure should be lowered if it exceeds 220/120 mm Hg
III Elevated blood pressure should treated in the acute periodCorrectIncorrect - Question 18 of 100
18. Question
1 points8 what are the approaches in acute episodes of stroke
I Supplemental oxygen is recommended when oxygen saturation < 95% II Hypoglycemia needs to be identified and treated early III Hyperthermia needs to be corrected if presentCorrectIncorrect - Question 19 of 100
19. Question
1 points9 which of the following are the inclusion guidelines for the administration of rt-PA
I Symptoms not suggestive of subarachnoid hemorrhage
II No head trauma or prior stroke in past 3 months
III myocardial infarction (MI) in past 3 monthsCorrectIncorrect - Question 20 of 100
20. Question
1 points10 which of the following are correct regarding the time of therapy
I rt-PA had to be given within 3 hours of stroke onset
II rt-PA had to be given only after CT scanning had ruled out hemorrhagic stroke.
III rt-PA need to be given before CT scanningCorrectIncorrect - Question 21 of 100
21. Question
1 points7 which of the following is correct about the use of iron in iron deficency anemia
I oral dose of elemental iron should be 100 to 200mg daily.
II dried ferrous sulfate, 200 mg gives 65mg elemental iron
III Ferrous gluconate 300 mg gives 35 mg ferrous ironCorrectIncorrect - Question 22 of 100
22. Question
1 points8 which of the following are the side effects of oral iron
I Nausea and epigastric pain
II can be constipating, particularly in older patients
III modified-release preparations, can exacerbate diarrhoea in patients with inflammatory
bowel diseaseCorrectIncorrect - Question 23 of 100
23. Question
1 points9 which of the following are the counseling point for patient who are oral iron preparation
I iron preparation can be taken after food to reduce gastro-intestinal side-effects
II iron preparation may discolour stools.
III iron preparation may cause drowsinessCorrectIncorrect - Question 24 of 100
24. Question
1 points10 which of the following conditions are caused byDeficiency of intrinsic factor that causes decreased absorption of vitamin B12
I pernicious anemia
II Iron-deficiency anemia
III Anemia of chronic diseaseCorrectIncorrect - Question 25 of 100
25. Question
1 points7 which of the following is(are) true about the treatment of Clostridium difficile infection
I Oral metronidazole
II oral vancomycin
III topical metronidazoleCorrectIncorrect - Question 26 of 100
26. Question
1 points8 Pneumonia: low-severity community-acquired are treated with which of the following drugs
I Amoxicillin
II doxycycline
III clarithromycinCorrectIncorrect - Question 27 of 100
27. Question
1 points9 Pneumonia: moderate-severity community-acquired is treated with
I Amoxicillin + clarithromycin
II doxycycline
III Amoxicillin+ doxycyclineCorrectIncorrect - Question 28 of 100
28. Question
1 points10 Meningitis caused by meningococci is treated with
I Benzylpenicillin
II cefotaxime
III doxycyclineCorrectIncorrect - Question 29 of 100
29. Question
1 points7 Types of urinary tract infections (UTIs)
I urethritis
II cystitis
III pyelonephritisCorrectIncorrect - Question 30 of 100
30. Question
1 points8 infection of the urethra is called
I urethritis
II prostitis
III pyelonephritisCorrectIncorrect - Question 31 of 100
31. Question
1 points9 infection of the bladder is called
I pyelonephritis
II cystitis
III prostitisCorrectIncorrect - Question 32 of 100
32. Question
1 points10 infection of the kidneys called
I cystitis
II pyelonephritis
III prostitisCorrectIncorrect - Question 33 of 100
33. Question
1 points7 the most advanced stage of HIV is
I AIDS
II tuberculosis
III cancerCorrectIncorrect - Question 34 of 100
34. Question
1 points8 if HIV test gives a negative results means
I free of virus
II tested too early after infection.
III tested very lateCorrectIncorrect - Question 35 of 100
35. Question
1 points9 what is mechanism of action of nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
I interrupt the HIV replication cycle
II inhibition of HIV reverse transcriptase
III termination of the DNA chain.CorrectIncorrect - Question 36 of 100
36. Question
1 points10 what are the risk of abacavir treatment
I hypersensitivity reactions
II fatal lactic acidosis
III severe hepatomegaly with steatosisCorrectIncorrect - Question 37 of 100
37. Question
1 points7 which of following are the medical test for BPH
I prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
II complete blood count
III ESRCorrectIncorrect - Question 38 of 100
38. Question
1 points8 which of the following are used to treat BPH
I alpha blockers
II 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
III phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitorsCorrectIncorrect - Question 39 of 100
39. Question
1 points9 alpha blockers acts by
I constricting the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck
II relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and bladder neck
III relaxing the smooth muscles of the prostate and urethraCorrectIncorrect - Question 40 of 100
40. Question
1 points10 which of the following are alpha blockers
I terazosin
II doxazosin
III tamsulosinCorrectIncorrect - Question 41 of 100
41. Question
1 points7 activities that may cause urine to
leak in Stress incontinence include
I coughing
II sneezing
III heavy liftingCorrectIncorrect - Question 42 of 100
42. Question
1 points8 when the bladder cannot completely empty when you pass urine is called
I stress incontinence
II Overflow incontinence
III urge incontinenceCorrectIncorrect - Question 43 of 100
43. Question
1 points9 which of the following statements are true about detrusor muscles
I relax to allow the bladder to fill with urine
II contract when go to the toilet to let the urine out.
III relax to allow the bladder to empty the urineCorrectIncorrect - Question 44 of 100
44. Question
1 points10 detrusor muscles contract too often, creating an urgent need to go to the toilet is called
I stress incontinence
II overactive bladder
III mixed incontinenceCorrectIncorrect - Question 45 of 100
45. Question
1 points7 which of the following are the Indirect-acting dopamine agonists
I amantadine
II selegiline
III bromocriptineCorrectIncorrect - Question 46 of 100
46. Question
1 points8 which of the following are correct about anticholinergics in the treatment of parkinsons disease
I blocks the excitatory neurotransmitter cholinergic influence in the basal ganglia
II more eff ective for tremor and rigidity than for bradykinesia
III less eff ective for postural imbalanceCorrectIncorrect - Question 47 of 100
47. Question
1 points9 which of the following are the Peripheral anticholinergic effects
I dry mouth
II decreased sweating
III decreased tolerance to heatCorrectIncorrect - Question 48 of 100
48. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the side effects of anticholinergics
I urinary retention
II increased intraocular tension
III diarrheaCorrectIncorrect - Question 49 of 100
49. Question
1 points7 antipsychotic effect of typical antipsychotics medications is primarily mediated through which kind of mechanism
I the blockade of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
II the activation of dopamine type 2 (D2) receptors
III the blockade of serotonin receptorsCorrectIncorrect - Question 50 of 100
50. Question
1 points8 which of the following are the characteristics of High-potency Typical antipsychotic agents
I have a higher affinity for the dopamine receptor
II higher risk for the development of EPS
III less risk for causing EPSCorrectIncorrect - Question 51 of 100
51. Question
1 points9 which of the following has got more sedation
I Chlorpromazine
II Thioridazine
III HaloperidolCorrectIncorrect - Question 52 of 100
52. Question
1 points10 which of the following drugs have more anticholinergic action
I Thioridazine
II Loxapine
III HaloperidolCorrectIncorrect - Question 53 of 100
53. Question
1 points7 acute renal failure is an absolute contraindication of which of the following drugs
I lithium
II Benzodiazepines
III AntipsychoticsCorrectIncorrect - Question 54 of 100
54. Question
1 points8 which of the following are the symptoms of bipolar disorder
I pressured speech,
II racing thoughts
III elevated or irritable moodCorrectIncorrect - Question 55 of 100
55. Question
1 points9.Acute mania is treated with which of the following drugs
I Benzodiazepines
II Lithium
III sodium valproateCorrectIncorrect - Question 56 of 100
56. Question
1 points10 hepatotoxicity is associated with which of the following drugs
I sodium valproate
II Lithium
III BenzodiazepinesCorrectIncorrect - Question 57 of 100
57. Question
1 points7what are the side effects of beta agonist
I tremor
II tachycardia
III hypokalemia at high doseCorrectIncorrect - Question 58 of 100
58. Question
1 points8which of the following are non selective beta agonist
I isoproterenol
II arformoterol
III formoterolCorrectIncorrect - Question 59 of 100
59. Question
1 points9which of the following are the actions of corticosteroids in asthma
I decrease air-way hyperresponsiveness.
II reduced production of inflammatory mediator
III increased mucus productionCorrectIncorrect - Question 60 of 100
60. Question
1 points10which of the following is used as an inhailed corticosteroid
I prednisone
II methyl prednisolone
III prednisoloneCorrectIncorrect - Question 61 of 100
61. Question
1 points7 what are the adverse effects of Roflumilast
I Weight loss,
II GI intolerance
III suicidalityCorrectIncorrect - Question 62 of 100
62. Question
1 points8 which of the antibiotics are used in COPD
I cephalosporin
II macrolides
III tetracyclineCorrectIncorrect - Question 63 of 100
63. Question
1 points9 what are the common bacterias found in COPD patients
I S. pneumoniae
II M. catarrhalis
III H. infl uenzae.CorrectIncorrect - Question 64 of 100
64. Question
1 points10 which of the drugs are not used in COPD patients
I oral N-acetylcysteine
II Potassium iodide
III guaifenesinCorrectIncorrect - Question 65 of 100
65. Question
1 points7 Motor signs of Simple partial seizures include
I convulsive jerking
II chewing motions
III lip smackingCorrectIncorrect - Question 66 of 100
66. Question
1 points8 paresthesias and auras are which type of manifestation of Simple partial seizures
I Motor signs
II Sensory and somatosensory manifestations
III Behavioral manifestationsCorrectIncorrect - Question 67 of 100
67. Question
1 points9 Autonomic signs of Simple partial seizures include
I sweating
II flushing
III pupil dilationCorrectIncorrect - Question 68 of 100
68. Question
1 points10 Behavioral manifestations of Simple partial seizures include
I déjà vu experiences
II structured hallucinations
III dysphasiaCorrectIncorrect - Question 69 of 100
69. Question
1 points6 what are the non pharmacological treatment of osteoporosis
I limiting caffeine consumption
II Smoking cessation
III Weight-bearing aerobic and strengthening exercisesCorrectIncorrect - Question 70 of 100
70. Question
1 points8 which of the following are the counseling points of calcium
I Calcium carbonate should be ingested with meals to enhance absorption
II Calcium citrate need not be taken with meals
III calcium carbonate can be taken on empty stomachCorrectIncorrect - Question 71 of 100
71. Question
1 points9 which of the following are true about calcium use in osteoporosis
I calcium increases BMD
II Constipation is the most common adverse reaction
III Calcium citrate has highest amount of elemental calciumCorrectIncorrect - Question 72 of 100
72. Question
1 points10 which of the following are true about Vitamin D Supplementation
I vitamin D maximizes intestinal calcium absorption
II vitamin D increase BMD
III it may also reduce fracturesCorrectIncorrect - Question 73 of 100
73. Question
1 points7 which of the following is selective COX 2 inhibitor
I Ibuprofen
II Celecoxib
III NaproxenCorrectIncorrect - Question 74 of 100
74. Question
1 points8 which of the following are used as topical analgesics
I Capsaicin
II Diclofenac
III CelecoxibCorrectIncorrect - Question 75 of 100
75. Question
1 points9 Intra-articular injections of corticoids are useful in which of the following condition
I knee OA
II hip OA
III hand OACorrectIncorrect - Question 76 of 100
76. Question
1 points10 which of the following are used as Adjunctive treatments.
I Glucosamine
II Chondroitin
III Sodium hyaluronateCorrectIncorrect - Question 77 of 100
77. Question
1 points7 stomatitis is the adverse reaction of which of the following drugs
I Gold Salts
II Azathioprine
III CyclosporineCorrectIncorrect - Question 78 of 100
78. Question
1 points8 what are the monitoring parameters of Azathioprine
I CBC
II LFTs
III BPCorrectIncorrect - Question 79 of 100
79. Question
1 points9 what are the adverse reaction of Leflunomide
I HTN
II alopecia,
III liver toxicityCorrectIncorrect - Question 80 of 100
80. Question
1 points7 NSAIDs, require cautious use in patients with the following conditions
I hypertension
II congestive heart failure (CHF)
III peptic ulcer disease and mild to moderate renal failureCorrectIncorrect - Question 81 of 100
81. Question
1 points8 which of the following is correct about colchicine treatment in acute gout
I relieves pain and inflammation
II most effective when started within 24 hrs after symptoms begin
III impairs leukocyte migration to inflamed areasCorrectIncorrect - Question 82 of 100
82. Question
1 points9 which of the following correct about colchicine
I It has no effect on serum urate levels
II it may cause GI side effect
III it will decrease serum urate levelCorrectIncorrect - Question 83 of 100
83. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the side effect of Chronic colchicine therapy
I neuromyopathy
II hypertension
III kidney failureCorrectIncorrect - Question 84 of 100
84. Question
1 points8 which of the following are correct about the antacids
I Liquid antacid forms have a greater buffering capacity than tablets
II tablets are more convenient to carry
III antacid tablet forms have a greater buffering capacityCorrectIncorrect - Question 85 of 100
85. Question
1 points9 which of the following antacids can cause constipation
I aluminum hydroxide
II magnesium hydroxide
III aluminum hydroxide with calcium hydroxideCorrectIncorrect - Question 86 of 100
86. Question
1 points10 diarrhea is a side effect of which of the following antacids
I aluminum hydroxide
II magnesium hydroxide
III aluminum hydroxide with calcium hydroxideCorrectIncorrect - Question 87 of 100
87. Question
1 points8 which of the following corticosteroids are used in IBD
I prednisone
II hydrocortisone
III ibuprufenCorrectIncorrect - Question 88 of 100
88. Question
1 points9 Corticosteroids side effects, includes
I puffy face
II excessive facial hair
III insomniaCorrectIncorrect - Question 89 of 100
89. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the immuno supressants used in IBD
I Azathioprine
II mercaptopurine
III methtrexateCorrectIncorrect - Question 90 of 100
90. Question
1 points8 what are the Counterregulatory hormones which increases blood glucose
I Glucagon
II Cortisol
IIITSHCorrectIncorrect - Question 91 of 100
91. Question
1 points10 which of the following are the actions of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
I Slows gastric emptying
II Increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion
III Suppresses appetiteCorrectIncorrect - Question 92 of 100
92. Question
1 points8 which of the following is called severe form of hypothyroidism
I Myxedema coma
II Sporadic goiter
III Hashimoto thyroiditisCorrectIncorrect - Question 93 of 100
93. Question
1 points9 which of the following happens in hypothyroidism
I Serum total thyroxine (TT4) decreases
II Serum total triiodothyronine (TT3) decreases
III Serum thyrotropin (TSH) assay increasesCorrectIncorrect - Question 94 of 100
94. Question
1 points10 Serum T4 is decreased by which of the following drugs
I Calcium carbonate
II Ciprofloxacine
III ContraceptivesCorrectIncorrect - Question 95 of 100
95. Question
1 points8 which of the following are used in glaucoma
I apraclonidine
II brimonidine
III bromocriptineCorrectIncorrect - Question 96 of 100
96. Question
1 points9 which of the following are Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used in glaucoma
I dorzolamide
II brinzolamide
III brimonidineCorrectIncorrect - Question 97 of 100
97. Question
1 points10 which of the following causes frequent urination
I dorzolamide
II bromocriptine
III apraclonidineCorrectIncorrect - Question 98 of 100
98. Question
1 points8 mifepristone interacts with which of the following drugs
I ketoprofen
II Flurbiprofen
III aspirinCorrectIncorrect - Question 99 of 100
99. Question
1 points9 which of the following medication may decrease female fertility
I diuretics
II Flurbiprofen
III aspirinCorrectIncorrect - Question 100 of 100
100. Question
1 points10 Flurbiprofen may interact with
I lithium
II methotrexate
III warfarinCorrectIncorrect
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