Diabetes Mellitus

1 which of the following condition is characterized by absolute insulin deficiency
I Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)
II Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
III Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)

2 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM)

I absolute insulin deficiency
II autoimmune destruction of the beta -cells of the islets of Langerhans
III requires insulin therapy

3 which of the following are the characteristics of Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM)
I most common form of DM
II autoantibodies are absent in T2DM.
III obesity is a risk factor

4 which of the following is correct about Gestational diabetes mellitus
I elevated plasma glucose during pregnancy
II elevated plasma glucose during and after pregnancy
III elevated plasma glucose before pregnancy

5 which of the following can cause diabetes mellitus
I glucocorticoids
II antipsychotics
III statins

6 normal glucose regulation involves which of the following
I insulin
II incretin hormones
III amylin.

7 which of the following are the fuctions of insulin
I Promotes the cellular uptake of plasma glucose
II Inhibits production of glucose from liver, muscle glycogen, or amino acids
III Stimulates conversion of glucose into glycogen and fat

8 what are the Counterregulatory hormones which increases blood glucose
I Glucagon
II Cortisol
IIITSH

9 which are the Incretin hormones secreated by intestine
I Glucagon
II gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
III glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)

10 which of the following are the actions of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)
I Slows gastric emptying
II Increases glucose-dependent insulin secretion
III Suppresses appetite

11 what are the symptoms if type 2 diabetes
I Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
II weight loss, Blurred vision
III Lower-extremity paresthesias

12 Diagnostic criteria by the American Diabetes Association (ADA) include the following
I A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 126 mg/dL (7.0 mmol/L) or higher
II A 2-hour plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher during a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
III A random plasma glucose of 200 mg/dL (11.1 mmol/L) or higher

13 Approaches to prevention of diabetic complications include the following
I HbA1c every 3-6 months
II Yearly dilated eye examinations
III Foot examinations at each visit

14 Metformin comes under which of the following catagory
I Biguanides
II Sulfonylureas
III Meglitinide derivatives

15 Metformin works by which of the following mechanism
I decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis production
II decreases intestinal absorption of glucose
III improves insulin sensitivity by increasing peripheral glucose uptake and utilization

16 which of the following are true about metformin
I rarely causes hypoglycemia.
II facilitates modest weight loss
III causes hepatic toxicity

17 which of the following are Sulfonylureas
I glyburide,
II glipizide,
III glimepiride

18which of the following are the actions of Sulfonylureas
I stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells
II enhance peripheral sensitivity to insulin
III decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis production

19 which of the following are the Meglitinide derivatives
I repaglinide
II nateglinide
III tolbutamide

20 which of the following are true about the Meglitinide derivatives
I shorter-acting insulin secretagogues
II preprandialy dosed
III long-acting insulin secretagogues

21 which of the following are true about the Meglitinide derivatives
I risk for inducing weight gain as sulfonylureas
II carry less risk for hypoglycemia.
III carry more risk for hypoglycemia.

22 which of the following are true about Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
I delay sugar absorption
II prevent postprandial glucose surges
III flatulence greatly limits their use

23 which of the following are true about Thiazolidinediones
I act as insulin sensitizers
II require the presence of insulin to work
III slow the progression of diabetes (particularly in early disease)

24 which of the following are the adverse reaction of Thiazolidinediones
I weight gain
II Fluid retention
III bladder cancer

25 which of the following are Glucagonlike peptide–1 agonists
I exenatide, liraglutide
II liraglutide, albiglutide
III albiglutide, dulaglutide

26 which of the following are the actions of Glucagonlike peptide–1 agonists
I stimulate glucose-dependent insulin release
II reduce glucagon
III slow gastric emptying

27 which of the following are true about exenatide
I Exenatide has greater ease of titration than does insulin
II requires twice-daily injections
III long-acting exenatide formulation that is given once weekly (Bydureon) is available

28 which of the following are Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors
I sitagliptin
II saxagliptin
III linagliptin

29 which of the following statement are true about Dipeptidyl peptidase IV inhibitors
I prolong the action of incretin hormones
II given once daily and are weight neutral.
III cause weight gain

30 which of the following are true about linagliptin
I predominantly nonrenal excreted
II low risk of drug-drug interaction
III safe to use in patients with renal insufficiency.

31 which of the following are Selective sodium-glucose transporter-2 inhibitors
I Canagliflozin
II dapagliflozin
III empagliflozin

32 which of the following drugs causes increased urinary glucose excretion
I Canagliflozin
II sitagliptin
III exenatide

33 which of the following is true about Canagliflozin
I lowers the renal glucose threshold
II Dosage adjustments are required in patients with renal impairment
III should not be used if eGFR is < 60 mL/min/1.73 m

34 Amylinomimetics actions include
I delays gastric emptying
II decreases postprandial glucagon release
III lowers the renal glucose threshold

35 which of the following statements are true about antidiabetic medications
I Metformin decreased LDL cholesterol levels
II Unfavorable effects on weight were greater with TZDs and sulfonylureas
III Risk of heart failure was higher with TZDs than with sulfonylureas

36 which of the following statements are true about Metformin
I Absence of weight gain or hypoglycemia
II should take during or after meals to reduce gastrointestinal [GI] side effects
III decrease the risk of dementia associated with type 2 diabetes.

37 which of the following considered in Dual-drug therapy with metformin
I DPP-4 inhibitor if both postprandial and fasting glucose levels are elevated
II GLP-1 agonist if postprandial glucose levels are strongly elevated
III TZD if the patient has metabolic syndrome

38 which of the following drugs are used in patients with obesity
I metformin
II sulphonyl urea
III TZD

39 which of the following are long acting insulins
I glargine
II detemir
III aspart

40 rapid-acting insulin includes
I aspart
II glulisine
III lispro

41 lipodystrophy is a condition associated with the use of which of the drugs
I insulin
II metformin
III sulfonyl urea

42 insulin is likely to be needed by most patients with:
I rapid onset of symptoms
II substantial loss of weight
III ketonuria

43 which of the following are true about the use of insulin
I Insulin is required by almost all children with diabetes.
II insulin is also needed for type 2 diabetes when other methods have failed
III insulin is also needed in pregnant women with type 1 diabetes when other methods have failed

44 which of the following are the characteristics of insulin lispro
I short duration
II rapid onset of action
III soluble insulin

45 rapid-acting insulin analogues includes
I insulin aspart, insulin glulisine
II insulin glulisine, and insulin lispro
III insulin lispro and isophane insulin

46. isophane insulin characteristics includes
I short duration
II intermediate action
III rapid-acting insulin

47 insulin whose action is slower in onset and lasts for long periods includes
I protamine zinc insulin
II isophane insulin
III insulin detemir, and insulin glargine

48 protamine zinc insulin characteristics includes
I slower in onset
II short duration
III intermediate action

49 Insulin requirements may be increased by
I infection, stress,
II accidental or surgical trauma
III puberty.

50 Insulin requirements may be decreased by
I Addison’s disease
II hypopituitarism
III coeliac disease